However, I am asking it.
This is a halachic version of wikipedia http://halachipedia.com/index.php?title=Prohibition_to_Lie
Assuming the content is accurate, a very odd statement is made:
"To Prevent Sin
It is permissible to lie in order to prevent another Jew from transgressing a sin. For instance to a person who is lax in certain prohibitions that a certain rav ruled that it is forbidden even if the rav never did. [8] "If this line of reasoning has been established by the rabbanites, that means they will have no problem making false claims about the authority of their laws and halacha. It is saying that when lying is expedient to further the cause, then it is OK. This can apply to ascribing the Zohar to being par of the Oral Law, or the Oral Law as being part of the Torah. By simply lying in the claim that the Oral Law was given to Moses, they create adherence to this set of man made laws.
It also means that no credibility can be given to claims and statements by the Pharisees.
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